PMW 2019-095 by Kenneth L. Gentry, Jr.
I am continuing a brief synopsis of an interview on postmillennialism of which I was a participant.
7) How do we understand prophecies that speak of “the day of the Lord” are they always talking about the last day or Can it be referring to temporary Judgments?
The day of the Lord often refers to historical events that occur in the OT. The day of the Lord comes against Babylon in Isa. 13; against Idumea in Isa. 34; and against Israel in Joel 2. Interestingly, the “day” of the Lord is not one day, for it occurs many times. Yet it is “one” in the sense that each day of the Lord event is a type of and a pointer to the final, consummate day of the Lord. The AD 70 judgment was a “day of the Lord” against Jerusalem.
8) What about the devil? Isn’t he the prince of this world? What is the current status of Satan in your view?
He is the prince of the fallen world in a limited since, in that sinners are under his influence. But he is not the ultimate prince of the world, for Christ has all authority in heaven and on earth (Matt. 28:18). In the first century Satan was bound so that he could not prevent the progress of the gospel and salvation of sinners: Matt 12:28 “But if I cast out demons by the Spirit of God, then the kingdom of God has come upon you. 29 Or how can anyone enter the strong man’s house and carry off his property, unless he first binds the strong man? And then he will plunder his house.” Continue reading
PMW 2018-041 by Kenneth L. Gentry, Jr.
This is my third and final installment of a brief study on Rev 1:10. In this series I have been arguing that John’s “Lord’s day” is a reference to the eschatological “Day of the Lord” which crashes down on Jerusalem in AD 70. For context see the two preceding articles.
Third, John’s phrase is functionally equivalent to the more common one. Though Bauckham rejects this interpretation, according to Aune he “concludes that kuriakos is virtually synonymous with (tou) kuriou.” Thus, kuriakos can, in fact, be a synonym for the more common expression of the day of the Lord. Conceivably, John could simply be rephrasing the eschatological designate by using an adjective instead of noun in the genitive. Continue reading
PMW 2018-040 by Kenneth L. Gentry, Jr.
This is the second in a three-part study of Rev. 1:10. I am continuing a presentation and defense of the view that John’s “Lord’s day” in Rev 1:10 is referring to “the Day of the Lord.” If this is so, it fits perfectly with the redemptive-historical preterist understanding of Revelation as a drama presenting Christ’s judgment-coming against Jerusalem and the temple in AD 70.
I will pick up where I left off in the last article. There I presented and briefly rebutted the argument for Rev 1:10 pointing to the Lord’s Day (the weekly day of worship). Now we are ready to look at the positive evidence for it picturing the Day of the Lord, i.e., AD 70. Continue reading
PMW 2018-039 by Kenneth L. Gentry, Jr.
Rev. 1:10 is a verse that I believe widely misinterpreted and misapplied in contemporary discussion. This verse reads: “I was in the Spirit on the Lord’s day, and I heard behind me a loud voice like the sound of a trumpet.” Contrary to popular opinion, I believe that John is speaking of “the Day of the Lord,” rather than “the Lord’s Day” (Sunday, the Christian day of worship). In this and the two following posts, I will engage the question.
John tells us here that he was in the Spirit “on the Lord’s day” (1:10a). Most commentators see the Greek phrase kuriake hemera (“Lord’s day”) as referring to when John received his vision, i.e., on the first day of the week, the Christian day of worship. Continue reading