PMT 2016-084 by Kenneth L. Gentry, Jr.
Reader’s question
I have been challenged on my view of Matt. 24:29-30 by someone who knows the Greek well. He stated that the passage does not mean what the preterist claims. He went as far as to say that the people I read and trust on this subject are wrong. Can you offer a Greek study/explanation as to why verse 30 can be read with the meaning being that “then will appear the sign of the Son of Man in heaven?” Continue reading
PMT 2016-083 by Kenneth L. Gentry, Jr.
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PMT 2016-075 by Kenneth L. Gentry, Jr.
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