THE REVELATION OF WHOM?

Revelation 1-1PMW 2024-020 by Kenneth L. Gentry, Jr.

The opening words in Revelation declare that it is a revelation of Jesus Christ (1:1a).

The fuller representation of Jesus’ name as “Jesus Christ” occurs only in Rev’s first five verses (1:1, 3, 5; both names are mentioned in 20:4 but not together). The name “Jesus” appears alone nine times (1:9 [2x]; 12:17; 14:12; 17:6; 19:10 [2x]; 22:16, 20). “Lord Jesus” is mentioned two times in the conclusion (22:20–21). He is referred to simply as “Lord” twice (11:8; 14:13).

Though Paul frequently uses “Jesus Christ” (Ro 1:4, 6–8; 1Co 1:1–3; 2Co 1:2–3; Gal 1:1; Eph 1:1–3; Php 1:11; Col 1:1, 3; 1Th 1:1; 2Th 2:1–2; 1Ti 1:16; 2Ti 2:8; Tit 1:1; etc.), as does Luke in Acts (Ac 2:28; 3:6; 4:10; 8:12, 37; 9:34; 10:36, 48; 11:17; 15:26; 16:18; 20:21; 28:31), it occurs only rarely in the Gospels: three times in Matthew (1:1, 18; 16:21 [in two early mss]), once in Mark (1:1), and none in Luke. John uses this double name only twice in his Gospel, once in the opening (1:17) and later he records it as Jesus’ self-reference in his high priestly prayer (17:3). But he uses it more frequently in his first epistle which has a strong emphasis on the incarnation (1Jn 1:3; 2:1; 3:23; 4:2; 5:6, 20; 2Jn 7).

Mounce (40; cp. Smalley 34) suggests that this fuller name “is appropriate in the elevated style of the prologue” and Boxall (23) notes that this fuller name “gives the book its incontestable authority.” That John refers to him simply as “Jesus” ten times (1:9 [2x]; 12:17; 14:12; 17:6; 19:10 [2x]; 20:4; 22:16; 22:20) is due to his focusing on his incarnational name of salvation: “Jesus” means “Jehovah saves” (cp. Mt 1:21). His theme regards Christ’s death which was made possible by his earthly incarnation (1:5, 7; 5:9; 7:14; 12:11; 19:13).



THE APOCALYPSE OF JOHN

by Milton S. TerryCover (front) to Apocalypse Commentary
This book is Terry’s preterist commentary on the Book of Revelation. It was originally the last half of his much larger work, Biblical Apocalyptics. It is deeply-exegetical, tightly-argued, and clearly-presented.

For more study materials: https://www.kennethgentry.com/


“Jesus Christ” occurs in the genitive form Iēsou Christou. This could be an objective genitive signifying “a revelation about Jesus Christ” (i.e., he is the subject of the revelation), as per Lücke (cf. Bleek 141), Hort (4), Hughes (15), Ford (373), and Corsini (71). Though most probably it is a subjective genitive meaning “a revelation from Jesus Christ” (i.e., he is the source of the revelation), as per the majority of scholars (e.g., Stuart 1:2; Bleek 141; Terry 275; Milligan 1901, 2; Düsterdieck 32, 95; Mounce 40; Beale 183; Witherington 67; Smalley 27; Osborne 52; Boxall 23).

Though the objective genitive could well fit the theme and drama of Rev, where the Slain Lamb is the central personality, this must be subjective for the following reasons: (1) Immediately after this statement we read: “which God gave Him.” Surely this does not mean that this is a revelation about Jesus Christ which God gave to Jesus. (2) The contextual flow is emphasizing the chain of revelation from God to Christ to his angel to John. In John’s Gospel Jesus declares that he teaches only what he hears from the Father (Jn 8:26–29, 40; 12:49; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8). (3) In his conclusion John records Christ’s statement that he “sent My angel to testify to you these things” (22:16, 20), i.e., the things in revelation are ultimately from Jesus. He is “the first Mediator who received, as it were, the revelation originally proceeding from the Father, to communicate it to the seer, and through him to other believers” (Bleek 141). (4) As I argue in my Introduction John appears to be under the direct control of Christ’s interpretation and application of the OT. This fits perfectly with the subjective genitive understanding.


God Gave Wine (by Ken Gentry)

A biblical defense of moderate alcohol consumption. Considers all key biblical passages and engages the leading objections.

See more study materials at: www.KennethGentry.com


This opening statement sets the tone for the rest of the book. Jesus’ revelation to John is especially concerned to present Jesus’ message to the seven churches (2:1, 8, 12, 18; 3:1, 7, 14) which is intended by him to minister to all other “churches” (2:7, 11, 17, 23, 29; 3:6, 13, 22). In light of Rev’s theme as stated in 1:7 (cp. Mt 24:30; Mk 13:26; Lk 21:27), this appears especially to be concerned with his message as delivered in the Olivet Discourse (Mt 24; Mk 13; Lk 21) the subject of which is also mentioned elsewhere (e.g., Mt 8:10–12; 21:12–13, 18–22, 33–45; 22:1–14; 23:31–38).

3 thoughts on “THE REVELATION OF WHOM?

  1. Connor Frazier's avatar
    Connor Frazier March 12, 2024 at 1:20 pm

    Hi Kenneth,

    Are you planning on giving a response to this article? Postmillennialism: A Biblical Critique – The Gospel Coalition. I’m curious what your arguments would be against the exegeses for Matthew 28 and 1 Corinthians 15 that Jeremy Saxton lays out. Thanks!

  2. Kenneth Gentry's avatar
    Kenneth Gentry March 12, 2024 at 1:35 pm

    I hope to get a chance to do that eventually!

  3. Noble Berean II's avatar
    Noble Berean II June 19, 2024 at 10:54 am

    The conclusion of this article is what I have intuitively understood to be the origin of Revelation, from a natural reading of the text—that Revelation was given to John by Jesus Christ while he was in the Spirit on Patmos. Where I have a problem is the way some interpreters and commentaries seem to over-emphasize the human (John‘s) side of it‘s authorship as if that is the principal driver of its structure, style, etc. I believe your article properly emphasizes that John was under the control of Christ (or even the Holy Spirit) in the writing of Revelation which establishes its tone, content, structure, etc., and is not John‘s message.

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